Proof that $f$ is uniformly continuous function if and only if for any sequence $(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ in $X$ that $d_X(x_n,y_n)\rightarrow0$, we have $d_Y(f(x_n),f(y_n))\rightarrow0$
$"\Longrightarrow"$
Let's suppose we know $f:X\rightarrow Y $ and $f$ is uniformly continuous function.
Let's $(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ in $X$ and $$d_X(x_n,y_n)\rightarrow0$$
It is correct to affirm that for $n\in \mathbb{N}$? $$x_n\longrightarrow y_n $$ If we can do that , applying $f$ because is uniformly continuous i.e $f$ is continuous :$$f(x_n)\longrightarrow f(y_n)$$ And we can see this is equivalent to: $$d_Y(f(x_n),f(y_n))\rightarrow0$$ $"\Longleftarrow"$
I think that by contradiction could be done.
Help me please.
The forward direction is complete nonsense: $x_n \to y_n$ is not defined.
Just take $\varepsilon > 0$. We need to find $N$ such that
$$\forall n \ge N: d_Y(f(x_n), f(y_n)) < \varepsilon$$
Find $\delta>0$ for uniform continuity with this $\varepsilon$. How do you get the $N$ from your unused assumption ?
For the reverse, use the contrapositive. Write out what it means to be not uniformly continuous, in logical terms. The sequences $(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ to choose will hopefully suggest themselves, as soon as your realise that you can take epsilons and delta's of the form $\frac{1}{n}$ in that negation..