I was studying for my Calculus test and I've got stuck in the following activity:
Compute $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \sqrt[k]{\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{k}{n}\right)}$$
I've tried to solve it using limits of Riemann sums of the logarithm of the expression:
$$\begin{align}\lim_{n \to \infty} \log{{\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{k}{n}\right)^{1/k}}}&=\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k} \log{\left(1+\frac{k}{n}\right)}\\ &=\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n}\frac{1}{k/n} \log{\left(1+\frac{k}{n}\right)}\end{align}$$
Defining $f(x) = \frac{1}{x} \log{(1+x)}$, the limit can be writen like a Riemann Sum:
$$\begin{align}\lim_{n \to \infty} \log{{\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{k}{n}\right)^{1/k}}}&= \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)\\&= \int_{0}^1 \frac{1}{x} \log{(1+x)} \end{align}$$
However, I'm afraid this integral cannot be computed in terms of elementary functions. Can anyone see my error or give me another idea of doing the problem?
Edit
As Martin R have said, it's probably a typo so I'm going to propose the solution to the "more reasonable" problem and I would appreciate if anyone can tell me if it's correct. I would proceed analogously, calculating the limit of the logarithm:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \log{{\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{k}{n}\right)^{1/n}}}=\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n} \log{\left(1+\frac{k}{n}\right)}$$
Then, defining $f(x) = \log(1+x)$, we get that:
$$\begin{align}\lim_{n \to \infty} \log{{\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{k}{n}\right)^{1/n}}}&= \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right) \\&= \int_0^1 \log(1+x)\end{align} $$
Integrating by parts, we get that one of its primitives is $\int \log(1+x) = (x+1) \log (1+x) - x$. Applying Barrow's Rule, we conclude that $\int_0^1 \log(1+x) = 2 \log 2 - 1$. Hence:
$$\begin{align}\lim_{n \to \infty} \sqrt[n]{\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{k}{n}\right)}& = e^{\lim_{n \to \infty} \log{{\prod_{k=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{k}{n}\right)^{1/n}}}}\\&= e^{2 \log 2 - 1} \\&= \frac{4}{e}\end{align}$$
Your technique works, and is quite direct.
Alternatively, $$1+\frac{k}{n}=\frac{n+k}{n}.$$
So your expression can be written as $$\sqrt[n]{\frac{(2n)!}{n^nn!}}$$ Then use Stirling’s approximation for $(2n)!$ and $n!$
Specifically, $$\frac{(2n)!}{n!n^n}\sim\frac{\sqrt{4\pi n}(2n/e)^{2n}}{\sqrt{2\pi n}(n/e)^{n}n^n}=\sqrt{2}\frac{2^{2n}}{e^n}$$
So the $n$th root goes to $\frac4e.$