Consider the following infinite limit
$\lim_{x\rightarrow0^+}\frac{1}{x^n}$
It suffices to show that the function has no upper bound given we approach the limit point from positive infinity, correct? Thus, can we write (?)
Given $\delta > 0$, then $x_0 < x < x_0 + \delta \implies f(x) > M$
\begin{align*} \frac{1}{x^n} &> M \\ \frac{1}{M^{\frac{1}{n}}} &> x \ \text{ if } \ \delta = \frac{1}{M^{\frac{1}{n}}} \end{align*}
You have the right idea, but to write a proper proof you should first fix a putative upper limit $M$ and show that there exists some $\delta$ such that $0 < x < \delta$ implies $x^{-n} > M$. In this case, a proof could go like this:
In other words, you have correctly identified the steps to get $\delta$ from $M$, but when writing down the proof, you must go up your chain of equivalences instead of down.