I was doing exercises on Howard Anton Calculus and I came across a problem which asks to find:
$$ \lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (0,0)} (x^2+y^2)\sin\left( \frac{1}{x^2+y^2} \right).$$.
Intuitively we know the answer: $0$, but is there a step by step procedure that can be proposed as an argument ?
Hint. Note that the sine values stays in the bounded set $[-1,1]$, and therefore for $(x,y)\not=(0,0)$, $$0\leq \left|(x^2+y^2) \sin\left( \frac{1}{x^2+y^2} \right)\right|\leq x^2+y^2.$$