Let $z_1,\dots,z_n\in\mathbb{C}$ be different points and let $f:\mathbb{C}\setminus\{z_1,\dots,z_n\}\to\mathbb{C}$ be a holomorphic function.
Suppose that $\lim\limits_{z\to\infty}f(z)=0$. Prove that
$$\lim\limits_{z\to\infty}zf(z)=\sum\limits_{k=1}^n \operatorname{Res}_{z_k}(f)$$
Clearly, we can look at $\lim\limits_{z\to 0}\frac{1}{z}f(\frac{1}{z})$. I have read something about residue at infinity, but I don't see how to use it.
Let $R>0$ be a radius such that all the singularities $z_j$ are inside the disk $D(0,R)$. (Center $0$ and radius $R$) Hence by the residue theorem, one has
$$2i\pi \sum\limits_{k=1}^n \operatorname{Res}_{z_k}(f) = \int_{C(0,R)^+} f(z) dz.$$ Now perform a change of variable $z=1/w$ to get $$\int_{C(0,R)^+} f(z) dz = -\int_{C(0,1/R)^-} \frac{1}{w^2}f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right) dw= \int_{C(0,1/R)^+} \frac{1}{w^2}f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right) dw.$$ Since the $z_j$ were inside $D(0,R)$, it is clear that the $1/z_j$ are now outside $D(0,1/R)$. Hence, the only singularity of $\frac{1}{w^2}f \left( \frac{1}{w}\right)$ inside $D(0,1/R)$ is $0$. Hence, by the residue theorem again, one has $$\int_{C(0,1/R)^+} \frac{1}{w^2}f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right) dw = 2i\pi\operatorname{Res}_{0}\left(w \mapsto \frac{1}{w^2}f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right)\right).$$ If we put everything together, we get $$\sum\limits_{k=1}^n \operatorname{Res}_{z_k}(f) =\operatorname{Res}_{0}\left(w \mapsto \frac{1}{w^2}f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right)\right).$$ Now the only thing you have to prove is that $0$ is a simple pole of $w \mapsto \frac{1}{w^2}f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right).$ Indeed if you do this, you will have $$\operatorname{Res}_{0}\left(w \mapsto \frac{1}{w^2}f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right)\right) = \lim_{w\to 0} w \frac{1}{w^2}f\left(\frac{1}{w}\right)=\lim_{z\to \infty}zf(z)$$ and you are done. Are you able to do that ?