Is it correct to write $\displaystyle \lim _{x\to\infty}{\frac{e^x-3}{e^x+1}}=\lim _{x\to\infty}{\frac{e^x}{e^x}}=1$? Can I simply discard $-3$ and $+1$?
Limit: $\displaystyle \lim _{x\to\infty}{\frac{e^x-3}{e^x+1}}$
81 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtThere are 4 best solutions below
On
You can either compute it using the limit rule or you can use Squeeze theorem to prove it.
$$1-\frac{4}{e^x}\le 1-\frac{4}{e^x+1}=\frac{e^x-3}{e^x+1}\le 1$$
On
This is true
$$\lim _{x\to\infty}{\frac{e^x-3}{e^x+1}}=\lim _{x\to\infty}{\frac{e^x}{e^x}}=1$$
but this is not a correct way to proceed.
Usually, and more in general, we proceed factoring out the dominating term as follows
$$\frac{e^x-3}{e^x+1}=\frac{e^x}{e^x}\cdot \frac{1-\frac{3}{e^x}}{1+\frac{1}{e^x}}\to 1\cdot \frac{1-0}{1+0}=1$$
similarly to the example already given.
In this case, as a simple alternative, we can also proceed as follows
$$\frac{e^x-3}{e^x+1}=\frac{e^x+1-4}{e^x+1}=\frac{e^x+1}{e^x+1}-\frac{4}{e^x+1}=1-\frac{4}{e^x+1}\to 1-0=1$$
On
I think first you would want to prove that you can discard the -3 in the numerator, which you can do simply splitting the fraction in two, e^x/(1+e^x)-3/(1+e^x). Clearly the minus part goes to 0 as x goes to infinite and you're left with e^x/(1+e^x). That goes to 1, but you can prove it by multiplying top and bottom by e^-x to get
1/(e^(-x)+1)
No, but you can multiply numerator and denominator by $e^{-x}$ :
$$\frac{e^x-3}{e^x+1}=\frac{1-3\, e^{-x}}{1+ e^{-x}}\to \frac{1+0}{1+0}=1$$