How would I go about showing the following limits that involve infinite series
$$ \lim_{x \to 0^{+}} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^{2k+1}} \sin (2\pi n(x - \frac{1}{2})) = 0 \text{ with } k \in \mathbb{N} $$
and
$$ \lim_{x \to 0^{+}} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^{2k}} \cos (2\pi n(x - \frac{1}{2})) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^{2k}} \cos (-\pi n) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^{2k}} \text{ with } k \in \mathbb{N} $$
I first had the idea that perhaps the rule of "the limit of the sums is the sum of the limits" would extend to the realm of infinite convergent series, but I came up with a counter example
$$ \lim_{x \to 0^{+}} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n} \sin (2\pi n(x - \frac{1}{2})) = \frac{\pi}{2} \neq 0 $$
I think I can prove the first limit by using Bernoulli polynomials, but that is not the kind of proof I'm looking for (I want to prove something about Bernoulli numbers by using this limit, so it would be kind of invalid to do so).
Idem so for limit no. 2, by using Euler's expression for even values of the Riemann zeta function, but again I want to prove something the other way around.
Any ideas? I must add that I'm an undergraduate math student, so my knowledge is very limited :-)
For $k=1,2,3,...$, you have $$ \begin{align} 0\leq\left|\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^{2k+1}} \sin (2\pi n(x - \frac{1}{2}))\right| &\leq \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2k+1}}=\zeta(2k+1)<\infty\\\\ 0\leq\left|\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^{2k}} \cos (2\pi n(x - \frac{1}{2}))\right| &\leq \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2k}}=\zeta(2k)<\infty \end{align} $$ thus, by uniform convergence on $[0,1]$, it is allowed to interchange the 'limit' and the 'infinite sum', then conclude with $$ \begin{align} \sin (2\pi n(x - \frac{1}{2})) \to 0 & \,\, \text{as}\,\, x \to 0^+,\\\\ (-1)^n\cos (2\pi n(x - \frac{1}{2})) \to 1 & \,\, \text{as}\,\, x \to 0^+. \end{align} $$