I am having problems with following question:
Let $\lambda$ be the Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb{R}$, and let $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be Lebesgue integrable. Show that $\lim_{n \to \infty} f(x + n) = 0 = \lim_{n \to \infty} f(x - n)$ for $\lambda$-almost every $x \in \mathbb{R}$.
I tried to show that the set of all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $\lim_{n \to \infty} f(x + n) \neq 0$ is a set with measure zero. But I have trouble showing that. I would be glad to get some pointers or ideas.
After switching the sum and integral and making the change of variables $y=x-k$ we get
$$ \int|f(x)|dx = \sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}} \int_k^{k+1} |f(x)|dx = \int_0^1 \sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}} |f(y+k)| dy$$
So the rightmost integral is finite. Since integrable functions are finite almost everywhere, we have that the sum on the right converges a.e., and hence that $|f(y+k)| \to 0$ as $|k|\to\infty$ for almost every $y\in[0,1]$ and hence almost every $y\in\mathbb{R}$. In fact, this convergence to zero happens at a summable rate.