Today my lecturer put up on the board that:
If $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ exists and $a_n>0$ then
$\displaystyle \limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}\left(a_n^{\frac{1}{n}}\right)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$
however I am not sure why this is true, can somebody give me a hint or something as to how to go about proving this.
thanks for any help
In fact, the stronger statement is as follows:
So, with this, if we assume that $\displaystyle \lim\frac{c_{n+1}}{c_n}$ exists then we have that $\displaystyle \overline{\lim}\sqrt[n]{c_n}\leq\overline{\lim}\frac{c_{n+1}}{c_n}=\underline{\lim}\frac{c_{n+1}}{c_n}\leq \underline{\lim}\sqrt[n]{c_n}$ from where it easily follows that $\overline{\lim}\sqrt[n]{c_n}=\underline{\lim}\sqrt[n]{c_n}$ and so $\lim \sqrt[n]{c_n}$ exists and, in fact, it's also clear it must be equal to $\displaystyle \lim\frac{c_{n+1}}{c_n}$. A proof of this fact can be found on page 68 of Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis. I assume you have access to this (very well-known) book--if not say so and I shall give an outline of the proof.