Let {${a_n}$} be a sequence of real numbers and $a \ne 0$.
$\lim_{n \to \infty} {a_n} = a$ iff $\lim_{n \to \infty} (\frac{a-a_n}{a+a_n}) = 0$
My approach:
Forward direction:
$\lim_{n \to \infty} (\frac{a-a_n}{a+a_n})$
$= (\frac{a-a}{a+a}) $
$= 0$
I don't know how to show the implication in the other direction. Also is my approach for the forward direction correct?
Hint: if $\,\frac{a-a_n}{a+a_n} = \frac{2a}{a+a_n}-1 \to 0\,$ then $\,\frac{2a}{a+a_n} \to 1\,$ so $\,\frac{a+a_n}{2a} \to 1\,$ and $\;\ldots$