I have been reading this old post:
Showing that an entire function with the following inequality is constant.
In the solution to the problem, we claim the following for $C$ constant, $n$ is a positive integer and $R$ is a positive, real number and $p >1$:
$$ \frac{n! C \; \log(R)^p}{R^n} \rightarrow 0 $$ for $R \rightarrow \infty $.
I have tried out L'Hôpitals rule as well as substituting R for an exponential function but with no useful results. I've done loads of problems like this in the past but I'm totally stuck on this one for some reason - a hint or two would be much appreciated!
Remark that it suffices to prove that for any $p>0$: $$\frac{(\log R)^p}{R} \to 0$$ when $R \to \infty.$ What happens when you apply L'Hopital's rule? Can you apply it again?