I'm asked to calculate the following limit: $$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sum \limits_{k=n}^{2n}\sin(\frac{\pi}{k})$$ Of course, I can simply rewrite this to $$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sum \limits_{k=0}^{n}\sin(\frac{\pi}{k+n})$$ Within the exercise, I was given the hint to interpret this as a Riemann integral.
Well unfortunately, I didn't get it. I've tried to use complex identity of $\sin(x)$:
$$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sum \limits_{k=0}^{n}\frac{e^{\frac{i\pi}{k+n}}-e^{-\frac{i\pi}{k+n}}}{2i}$$
and Taylor series for $x_{0}=0$ $$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sum \limits_{k=0}^{n} \lim\limits_{m\to\infty}\sum \limits_{l=0}^{m}(-1)^{l} \frac{(\frac{\pi}{k+n})^{2l+1}}{(2l+1)!}$$
But none of them let me recognize a Riemann sum.
If someone could give me a further hint, I would be really grateful!
Write $\sin x$ as a Taylor series instead:
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^m\pi^{2m+1}}{(2m+1)!} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{1}{(k+n)^{2m+1}}$$
For the innermost summation, pull out the $n$:
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{1}{\left(\frac{k}{n}+1\right)^{2m+1}}\cdot\frac{1}{n^{2m+1}}$$
For $m=0$ this is a Riemann sum. For $m > 0$, this is a Riemann sum times $n^{-2m}$. Provided the integrals converge (which they do, you will have to show this) these other limits go to $0$. Can you take it from here?