I have a question on this specific question from my textbook.
How is limit of $\ln(x^2)$ as $x$ approaches $0$ equal to $-\infty$?
Shouldn't it be undefined?
Since this chapter is without l'Hospital's rule, I would like to know without using the rule.

Note that $\ln (x^2)$ is defined for any $x\in\mathbb R \setminus\{0\}$ and therefore the limit exists, indeed just take $y=x^2 \to 0^+$ then
$$\lim_{x\to 0} \ln (x^2)=\lim_{y\to 0^+} \ln y=-\infty$$