I am thinking of a way to obtain an approximation I found in a paper I'm currently reading:
We need an approximation of the logarithm taken in a value very very close to 1. Lets say:
$A = \frac{\ln(1-\epsilon_A^2)}{\ln(1-\epsilon_B^2)}$
and we basically want to take the limit when $\epsilon_B\to 0.$
It happens that the paper claims that this is: $ A \approx \frac{\epsilon_A^2}{\epsilon_B^2}$.
Does anybody have some idea of how this result popped up?
Any clue on logarithm rules or limits..
Thanks!
Recall that for $x\to 0$
$$\frac{\ln (1+x)}{x}\to 1\implies \ln (1+x)\sim x$$
indeed since for $x\to 0$
$$\left(1+x\right)^\frac1x\to e \implies \log (1+x)^\frac1x\to\log e=1$$
therefore in this case for $\epsilon_A,\epsilon_B \to 0$
$$A = \frac{\ln(1-\epsilon_A^2)}{\ln(1-\epsilon_B^2)}\sim \frac{\epsilon_A^2}{\epsilon_B^2}$$