I am struggling with the proof of the following theorem:
Let $f(x)$ be uniformly continuous in $[a, \infty)$ s.t. the integral $\int_a^{\infty} f(x)dx$ converges. prove that $\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = 0$.
I came to the conclusion that it is enough to prove that $\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x)$ exists, and from there I have a proof that the limit is $0$.
I tried to use Cauchy's equivalent definition for the convergence of the improper integral + his definition for a regular limit at $x \to \infty$ with no success...
I will be happy to get hints as for how I should proceed, not proofs, since I really want to crack this one by myself, only I spent a pretty long time with no success.
Thank you :)
Hint. If $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)$ fails to exist but the integral $\int_{a}^{\infty} f(x) \, dx$ converges, then we often observe a 'train of narrowing peaks':
$\hspace{3em}$
This means that you begin to see an abrupt change in $f(x)$ for large $x$. How the uniform continuity enters this picture is that it prevents peaks from being both high and narrow. So it becomes harder to observe high peaks as $x\to\infty$.
Sketch of Proof. (Hover the cursor to see the content.)