Given question :
Evaluate
$$\oint_C \dfrac{\mathbb dz}{z-2}$$
Around the circle $|z-1|=5$
Since, the center point at $(1,0)$ and has a radius of $5$, i know $z=1+5e^{i\theta}$ with $0\leq \theta \leq 2\pi$.
Then i get
$$\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{5ie^{i\theta}}{5e^{i\theta}-1} \,\mathbb d\theta$$
Then, i'm trying to substitute $u=5e^{i\theta}$
And it gives me :
$$\int_5^5 \frac{\mathbb du}{u-1}$$
(Is there something wrong in my substitution?)
And we know that integral is $0$.
It contradicts with my book's solution which is the answer is $2\pi i$
And actually i agree with my book's solution answer considering i remembered with something formula or theorem like this:
$$\oint_C \frac{f(z_0)}{z-z_0}\,\mathbb dz=2\pi i f(z_0)$$
I just thought about the answer must be involving $2\pi i$
Why? Where is my mistake?
Edit 1 :
Well, if i really really can't do that integration with fundamental theorem of calculus bcz the function isn't continuous, how do i solve this integration without looking too far using the residual theorem or the cauchy integral theorem? let's say I don't know yet about those two theorems. I mean i want to solve this using basic parametrization. Without any theorem like green's theorem or something.
I'm too confused, bcz my solution manual said we have to Let $z-2=5e^{i\theta}$, But why? Why we have to do that? We know if we have locus $|z-1|=5$ this means $z=1+5e^{i\theta}$ right? And i know $z-2=5e^{i\theta}$ isn't equivalent with $z=1+5e^{i\theta}$ mathematically. My solution manual supposing the contour $C$ to be $\Gamma$ which is a circle of radius $5$ with center $z=a,\,a=2$ and letting $z-2=5e^{i\theta}$.
Does it means, whether we shift it right or left, the contour integral never changes?
Edit 2 :
Actually i know where is my mistake. What about i'm using long division or partial fraction decomposition like this:
$$\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{5ie^{i\theta}}{5e^{i\theta}-1} \,\mathbb d\theta=\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{i}{5e^{i\theta}-1} \,\mathbb d\theta +\int_0^{2\pi}i\,\mathbb d\theta$$
It will works right? It will gives me the correct answer $2\pi i$
Is it allowed???

Suppose that you are computing an integral like $\int_a^bf(x)\,\mathrm dx$. If $g\colon[c,d]\longrightarrow[a,b]$ is differentiable, if $g(c)=a$ and if $g(d)=b$, then we have$$\int_a^bf(x)\,\mathrm dx=\int_c^df\bigl(g(y)\bigr)g'(y)\,\mathrm dy.$$That's simple and I have stated all assumptions needed about the function $g$. In practice, what we do here is to take $x=g(y)$ and $\mathrm dx=g'(y)\,\mathrm dy$. You seem to believe that this is what you did.
But it isn't. You took an integral of the type $\int_a^bf\bigl(g(x)\bigr)g'(x)\,\mathrm dx$ and you did $x=g^{-1}(y)$ and $\mathrm dx=(g^{-1})'(y)\,\mathrm dy$. But your function $g$ is not a bijection and therefore $g^{-1}$ doesn't exist.