I just came up with a simple question.
If I have a polynomial function $f(x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n)$ and I know that when $x_i=x_j, f=0$. Then does it imply $x_i-x_j$ divides $f$ for all $i\neq j$? If yes, why is that?
2026-04-18 17:46:22.1776534382
Linear factor divides a function
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