I have a statement for a space over $R^n$:
{x, y, z} is linearly ind. $\implies$ {x + y, x + z, y + z} is linearly independent
Quick proof:
a(x+y) + b(x+z) + c(y+z) = 0 $\implies$ (a+b)x + (a+c)y + (b+c)z = 0
a+b = 0, a+c = 0, b+c = 0 (assuming x,y,z are LI) $\implies$ a,b,c = 0
The question is, would that be true for an arbitrary field?
I suppose, that it is wrong for some $Z_p$ field because of mod rules which make addition weird.
But I don't have an idea how to show this in general way.
The reasoning up to \begin{cases} a+b=0\\ a+c=0\\ b+c=0 \end{cases} can be performed in any field.
From $b+c=0$ you get $c=-b$, so $a-b=0$ and $a=b$. Therefore $2a=0$ and you can conclude that $a=0$ only if the characteristic of the base field is not $2$.
On the other hand, if the characteristic is $2$, the assertion is false, because $$ 1(x+y)+1(x+z)+1(y+z)=0. $$