I have a question regarding linear independence in finite fields, more specifically the GF(3)-field.
My textbook claims that
$ (1,2,0)^T,(2,1,0)^T,(0,0,1)^T, $
are linearly independent wrt. the field $\mathbb{R}$, but not wrt. GF(3). I've googled myself to death on the definition of finite fields, but I can't seem to find an answer. Obviously the three vectors are lienarly independent wrt. $\mathbb{R}$, but why this doesn't mean that they are wrt. GF(3) I don't understand, GF(3) is a subfield of $\mathbb{R}$? I guess the definition of inner products on GF(3) are different somehow, but I can't find anything sensible online.
Thank
First you really need to google the field $GF(2)$ with two elements. It is sometimes defined by $\mathbb{Z}/2$, and then $(1,2,0)$ just denotes the class modulo $2$, i.e., the vector $(1,0,0)$. You may say, $2=0$ in $GF(2)$. Obviously we then just have the standard basis. If you also google the characteristic of a field, it will be clear that $GF(2)$ cannot be a subfield of the real numbers.
Edit: For the new question: also for $K=GF(3)$ you can use the result that the vectors $x_1,x_2,x_3$ are linearly independent over $K$ if and only if the determinant of the matrix $A=(x_1,x_2,x_3)$ with colums vectors has nonzero determinant over $K$. Now $\det(A)=-3=0$ over $K$, and hence this vectors do not form a basis.