Hello again. Continuing with the book Stein, there is an observation that I would like to try.
I have the following:
For any $f\in L^1\cap L^2$, by proposition 1 in Bounded linear operators that commute with translation
$T(f)=f\ast \mu$ and by prop 2. in this post, $T(f)=\mathcal{F}^{-1}(m(x)\hat{f})$ then $\mathcal{F}^{-1}(m(x)\hat{f})=f\ast \mu$ implies $m(x)\hat{f}=F(f\ast\mu)=\hat{f}\hat{\mu}$. Therefore $\hat{f}(m-\hat{\mu})=0$ for any $f\in L^1\cap L^2$.
Therefore $m-\hat{\mu}=0$?

Yes what are you not sure about. As usual look at $g_k = k^n e^{-\pi k^2 |x|^2}$ and $f\in C^\infty_c$, approximating $f_k=f\ast g_k$ with a sequence of finite sums of translates of $g_k$, since $T$ is continuous you get $$T(f_k) = T(g_k)\ast f,\qquad \widehat{T(f_k)} = \widehat{T(g_k)}\widehat{f}$$ by density this stays true for $f\in L^2$.
Taking $\widehat{f}= 1$ on $|x|<r$ you obtain your function $$m=\lim_{k\to \infty}\widehat{T(g_k)}\qquad (\text{convergence in } L^2_{loc})$$
It is (represented by) a measurable function because it is in $L^2_{loc}$.
This function is bounded because if the measure of $\{ x,|\widehat{T(g_k)}(x)| \ge A\}$ is non-zero then $\|T\|\ge A$.