Suppose that $f_n/f = 1-o_p(1)$. Is this equivalent to saying $f_n/f \overset{p}{\to} 1$? Or is one weaker than the other?
2026-03-29 23:39:56.1774827596
Litle-$o_p$ notation question
22 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in NOTATION
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