I know that log of negative numbers is complex numbers. But I just got over this little proof and wondering what is wrong with this? $$\log(-a)=\frac{2\times\log(-a)}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\log(a^2)=\frac{2}{2}\log(a)=\log(a)$$
2026-05-15 21:57:29.1778882249
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Log of negative numbers
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Let's cut the complex plane along the positive real axis and work on the Riemann sheet for which
$$0\le \arg{z}<2\pi \tag 1$$
For $a$ real-valued with $a>0$, we have
$$\log (-a) =\log a +i\pi \tag 2$$
Now, we have
$$\begin{align} \log (-a)&=\frac{2\log(-a)}{2}\\\\ & =\frac12 \log a^2 +i\pi \\\\ &=\log a +i \pi \\\\ &\ne \log a \end{align}$$
In fact, if we multiply Equation $(2)$ by a factor of $2$, we get
$$2\log(-a)=\log a +i2\pi \ne \log a$$
That is, in multiplying by $2$, we actually move to the subsequent Riemann surface since Equation $(1)$ restricts the argument to be less than $2\pi$.
CONCLUSION:
$n\log z \ne \log z^n$ in general.
Because the property is actually $$\ln(x^a)=a\ln(\vert x\vert)$$ (for even integer a), and not$$\ln(x^a)=a\ln(x)$$ and since no number has a negative absolute value, the second equality is incorrect.