i was asked to check whether any of those claims is true:
1)$f(n)=o(g(n))$ implies that $\log f(n)=o(\log g(n))$
2)$\log f(n)=o(\log g(n))$ implies that $f(n) = o(g(n))$
what I did:
1) false claim. if $f(n)=o(g(n))$, then it means that $0≤f(n)<cg(n)$, i.e. $\lim _{n\to \infty }\left(\frac{\log f(n)}{\log g(n)}\right)=0$. so if we plug in $f(n)=2^n$ and $g(n)=3^n$, we see that it's not equal to zero and it's a false claim.
2) seems to be true. using the above explanation, $\lim _{n\to \infty }\left(\frac{f(n)}{\log g(n)}\right)=0$, and this seems to be true. couldn't find ay counter example.
Still trying to understand this confusing subject. your input helps me a lot to understand and correct my mistakes.
Thank you very much for your sincere help
Both are not true, for 1) just consider
and for 2)