Given a propositional term, I know we can substitute terms inside it if they are logically equivalent. Now, whenever we simplify propositional terms, whenever there is a term which is always true, i.e $(p \lor \neg p)$, or a term which is always false i.e $(p \land \neg p)$, we can just cancel it from the term. For example, in the term $$(\neg p \lor r)\land((\neg q \land \neg r) \lor (r \land \neg r))$$
We can just remove the term $(r \land \neg r)$. My lecturer justifies this by saying "because it's always $FALSE$", but it doesn't sit right with me. Why is this so? What are we replacing it with that is logically equivalent to it?
$p \land \neg p$ is indeed a contradiction, and in logic we use $\bot$ for that, so you can always replace $p \land \neg p$ with $\bot$
However, to completely get rid of a term, you need an equivalence like:
$$p \lor \bot \Leftrightarrow p$$
Please note though that this only works with $\lor$, because in connection with the $\land $ you have:
$$p \land \bot \Leftrightarrow \bot$$
Also, a term like $p \lor \neg p$ is a tautology, and for that we use $\top$.
And some useful equivalences for the $\top$ are:
$$p \land \top \Leftrightarrow p$$
and
$$p \lor \top \Leftrightarrow \top$$