I want to prove that:
$$x + y.z = (x + y)(x + z)$$
in logic. The right statement equals:
$$(x.x) + (x.y) +(x.z) + (y.z)$$
So if I assume that $x=1$, then the whole statement equals 1, no matter the rest of the statement:
$$1 + y + z + y.z = 1 + A = 1$$
And if I assume that $x=0$ the whole statement equals $y.z$:
$$0 + 0 + 0 + y.z = y.z$$
So it is equivalent to
$$x + y.z$$
I have proved the equivalence in this way. But I want to know is there any better way with strong mathematical or logical proof for it.
Best Regards
2026-04-01 23:30:48.1775086248
Logical proof of an equivalence
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1
Note that $(x.x)=x$ by the idempotence law and $x+(x.y)=x$ by the absorption one.