The solution for this is $$ -\dfrac{1}{x} + \dfrac{x^2}{4!} - \dfrac{x^2}{6!} + \ldots \;, $$ but I'm not sure how to derive this Maclaurin series from $\cos(x)$. The solution just divided each term in the Maclaurin series for $\cos(x)$ by $x^2$, and then subtracted out the beginning term in $\cos(x)$ (which is $1$ in $1+x^2/2!-\ldots$). Dividing by $x^2$ makes sense, but how come only the first $1$ is subtracted? Shouldn't a $1$ be subtracted for each term and then the term be divided by $x^2$?
2026-04-03 22:27:14.1775255234
Maclaurin series for $\dfrac{\cos(x)-1}{x^2}$
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$$\cos x=\sum^\infty_{k=0}\dfrac{(-1)^kx^{2k}}{(2k)!}\\ \implies \cos x-1=\sum^\infty_{k=1}\dfrac{(-1)^kx^{2k}}{(2k)!}\\ \implies \dfrac{\cos x-1}{x^2}=\sum^\infty_{k=1}\dfrac{(-1)^kx^{2(k-1)}}{(2k)!}$$ Expand the series.