When googling about Maclaurin series, I found this: $$\begin{eqnarray*} \frac{1}{1-x} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n \\ \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{1-(1-x)} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-x)^n \\ \frac{1}{x^2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-x^2)^n \\ \frac{1}{(2-x)^2} & = & \sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-(2-x)^2)^n) \\ & = & \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-x^2 +4x - 3)^n \\ & = & \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n (x - 3)^n (x - 1)^n \end{eqnarray*}$$
There appears to be problem regarding the convergence at $x = 0$. I don't see where the mistake in the working is, and then how to continue until we get the standard answer for power series of $\frac{1}{(2-x)^2}$? Thank you
That series from the starting is valid if $$|x|<1$$
And you got the hint now.
Find the convergence interaiew..usign this from the starting..and you will see why X=0 gives divergence result
At last you should get $$|1-(2-x)^2|<1$$ Here is the graph showing the above region:
which on solving gives the approximate solution interval as $$0.58<x<2\;\;\;\; \cup \;\;\;\;2<x<3.41$$
So,