I need to develop Maclaurin serie of $f(x)=\frac{1}{(1-x)^2}$
I found all the derivative, and all the zero values for the derivatives. I come up with that :
$\frac{1}{(1-x)^2}=1+2x+\frac{6}{2!}x^2+\frac{24}{3!}x^3+\frac{120}{4!}x^4+...+\frac{?}{(n-1)!}x^{n-1} + ...$
Now I want to determinate $L_n=\frac{f^{n-1}(0)}{(n-1)!}x^{n-1}$
And this is where I'm stuck. How can I calculate $L_n$ ?
When calculating successive derivatives, sometimes it is more illuminating to not simplify out the entire calculation: $$\begin{align*} f(x) &= (1-x)^{-2}, \\ f'(x) &= 2(1-x)^{-3}, \\ f''(x) &= 2(3)(1-x)^{-4}, \\ f'''(x) &= 2(3)(4)(1-x)^{-5}, \\ f^{(4)}(x) &= 2(3)(4)(5)(1-x)^{-6}, \\ &\vdots \\ f^{(n)}(x) &= \ldots. \end{align*}$$ Does the pattern seem more evident now?