In Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy they say that (for a formal system F) by the Diagonalization Lemma a sentence G can be constructed: $F \vdash G_F$ $\leftrightarrow$ $\lnot Prov(⌈G_F⌉)$. This sentence G basically says that F proves $G_F$ iff the Goedelnumber of $G_F$ is not provable.
If I assume G then I can totally follow them on why neither $G_F$ nor $\lnot G_F$ is not provable, but my problem is this: why do I have to assume G, what if I just assume ~G? Then the whole problem resolves and everything seems fine because ~G $ \equiv$ $(F \vdash G_F$ $\land$ $Prov(⌈G_F⌉))$ $\lor$ $ (\lnot Prov(⌈G_F⌉) \land F\nvdash G_F)$.
You misunderstood: $G$ is not the biconditional $(F \vdash G_F) \leftrightarrow (\lnot Prov(⌈G_F⌉))$. Rather, $G$ is the metalogical claim that the biconditional $G_F$ $\leftrightarrow$ $\lnot Prov(⌈G_F⌉)$ (which is a logical claim) can be proven in $F$. And that metalogical claim we write as $F \vdash G_F \leftrightarrow \lnot Prov(⌈G_F⌉)$ (think of it as $F \vdash (G_F \leftrightarrow \lnot Prov(⌈G_F⌉))$
Moreover, it is not claim $G$ that is what is typically referred to as the 'Godel sentence', but rather $G_F$. That is, Godel's proof shows that relative to any 'strong enough' (strong enough to prove elementary arithmetical truths basically), consistent, and recursive formal system $F$, there must be some sentence $G_F$ such that $F \vdash G_F$ $\leftrightarrow$ $\lnot Prov(⌈G_F⌉)$ is the case. When you now assume that $G_F$ is false, you get a problem, because then, given the truth of the biconditional (it's true since $F$ derives it), it would have to be true that $G_F$ is provable, and thus true, which contradicts the assumption that is was false. So, it must be true. And, given that same biconditional, not provable.
The truth of $G$ itself is not under discussion. Godel's proof that $G$ has to be the case.