Could anyone help me make sense of how this basis works. I have $X = \bigcup_{n = 1}^\infty \mathbb{N}^n$. Now for $a \in \mathbb{N}^n$ and $A \subseteq \mathbb{N}^{n + 1}$, where $A$ is finite, we have $$U_a(A) = \{x \in X:\pi_{[1,n]}(x) = a,\pi_{[1,n+1]}(x) \notin A\}.$$ So, we have $$\{U_a(A):(\exists n \in \mathbb{N}) a \in \mathbb{N}^n, A \subseteq \mathbb{N}^{n + 1}\}$$ as a basis for a topology on $X$. I want to prove it is a basis on my own, but I still am having trouble getting an intuition of what these open sets exactly are.
To clarify, $\pi$ is a projection, i.e. $\pi_{[1,n]} (a_1,a_2,\cdots,a_{n},a_{n+1},\cdots) = (a_1,a_2,\cdots,a_n)$.
Regarding Tony's comment, I guess another hidden assumption in the definition of $U_a(A)$ is that $x$ must have length at least that of $a$, in order for $\pi_{[1,n]}(x)$ to be defined.
So for $a \in \mathbb{N}^n$ and $A \subseteq \mathbb{N}^{n+1}$, the set $U_a(A)$ contains all sequences $x$ of length at least $n$ such that the first $n$ components are the same as $a$, while the first $n+1$ components do not appear as an element of $A$.
We need to check two properties of this collection in order to verify it is a basis. Do you see why the $U_a(A)$ cover $X$? For an arbitrary $x \in X$, you just need to find some $n \in \mathbb{N}$, some $a \in \mathbb{N}^n$ and some $A \subseteq \mathbb{N}^{n+1}$ such that $x \in U_a(A)$. For example, I believe $a=x_1$ and $A = \varnothing$ works.
For the other property, we need to show that if $U_a(A)$ and $U_{a'}(A')$ are sets in the collection, and $x$ lies in their intersection, then there exists $U_{a''}(A'')$ also in the collection such that $x \in U_{a''}(A'') \subset U_a(A) \cap U_{a'}(A')$.
There are some cases you need to handle.