Is there a function $f:$ (latitude, longitude) $\longrightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ (for any finite $n$) such that the linear distance between $f(x)$ and $f(y)$ is the great circle distance between $x$ and $y$?
My guess is no, but I can't seem to prove it. Reasoning: the great circle formulas involve sines and cosines. Linear distance in $\mathbb{R}^n$ is (the square root of) a finite sum of squares. If such a mapping existed, we would have a finite power series for sine or cosine, which we know doesn't exist.
The followup question: does such an $f$ exist such that the linear distance between $f(x)$ and $f(y)$ is within a specified tolerance (eg, one mile) of the great circle distance between $x$ and $y$?
I'm ambivalent on this one... I don't think it can be done, but I've lost the ability to picture $n \ge 4$ dimensions, so I could be wrong.
EDIT: Of course, $f$ itself may involve sines and cosines, so now I'm wondering if this actually CAN be done in $\mathbb{R}^4$ or something...
EDIT: Chris is correct, of course. Perhaps another way of seeing it: the triangle inequality applies to all $\mathbb{R}^n$ but not to the sphere. Non-Euclidean geometry really is Non-Euclidean!
First question: No. In $\mathbb R^n$, there is only one point that lies halfway between two given points. On a sphere, there are infinitely many points halfway between the poles, i.e. the entire equator.
Edits: To be clear, "halfway between" is a stronger property than "equidistant from". I say that $m$ is halfway between $x$ and $y$ if $d(x,m)=d(m,y)=\frac12 d(x,y)$.
...Okay, let's set up some notation.
Assume for the sake of simplicity that $d_c(N,S)=1$. Then $d_c(N,e_1)=d_c(e_1,S)=\frac12$. Also, $d_c(N,e_2)=d_c(e_2,S)=\frac12$. Now suppose a function $f:S^2\to\mathbb R^n$ exists such that for all $x,y\in S^2$, we have $d_s(f(x),f(y))=d_c(x,y)$. Then $d_s(f(N),f(S))=1$ and $d_s(f(N),f(e_1))=d_s(f(e_1),f(S))=\frac12$, which implies that $f(e_1)$ is just the vector average $$f(e_1)=\frac{f(N)+f(S)}{2}.$$ But by the same logic, $f(e_2)$ is the same point, so $f(e_2)=f(e_1)$, and therefore $d_s(f(e_1),f(e_2))=0$. This contradicts the assumption that $d_c(e_1,e_2)>0$.
Followup question: Sure! In the usual embedding of the sphere in $\mathbb R^3$, there is a finite tolerance between the great circle distance between two points and the straight-line distance in the ambient space. The tolerance is, of course, much greater than one mile.