Given $\mathbb{Q}$ and the usual addition $+$ on it, do we have unicity of a binary operation $\star$ such that \begin{align*} \tag{1}1\star q&=q\\ \tag{2}(q+r)\star s&=q\star s+r\star s \end{align*} for all $q,r,s\in\mathbb{Q}$ ?
I know this is true for $\mathbb{N}$ and $\mathbb{Z}$ instead of $\mathbb{Q}$, so I suspect that the answer is yes. However, I don't see how to prove it.
For $\mathbb{N}$, existence and unicity are usually proved together in a Recursion Theorem.
For $\mathbb{Z}$, one can show that $\star$ is the usual multiplication by reducing to $\mathbb{N}$ using the partition $$ \mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}=(\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N})\sqcup(-\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N})\sqcup(\mathbb{N}\times-\mathbb{N})\sqcup(-\mathbb{N}\times-\mathbb{N}) $$ (See here.)
I don't see a useful partition of $\mathbb{Q}$ in terms of $\mathbb{Z}$, $-\mathbb{Z}$ and $(\mathbb{Z}\backslash\{0\})^{-1}$.
No reason to partition.
First, show $0\star q=0$.
Then show that $(-p)\star q=-(p\star q)$.
Then show that if $n$ is natural, then $n\star q=nq$, by induction.
Then show that if $r=\frac{m}{n}$ with $m$ an integer and $n$ natural, then $mq=n(r\star q)$.