I am trying to show that if you use the lexicographic ordering induced by $\mathbb R$ on $\mathbb R\times\mathbb R$ they are not isomorphic.
Is it enough to use the counter-example that whilst $(1,0) < (1,1)$ in $\mathbb R\times \mathbb R$, $1$ is not strictly less than $1$ in $\mathbb R$?
Thanks
Hint: the fundamental property of the order on the reals is that every subset that has an upper bound has a lowest upper bound.
Is this property shared by the product under the lexicographic order?
Your example is not a proof: it's obvious that an order preserving bijection must have strange properties, if it existed.