In "Lattice Theory" by G. Birkhoff, in XIV.9 there is the following Lemma 1:
In any integral po-groupoid, any maximal element is prime and indecomposable
A po-groupoid is a poset equipped with a binary operation $\cdot$ such that $a\leq b$ implies $xa \leq xb$ and $ax\leq bx$. It is integral if $1\geq a$ for all $a$. A maximal element is then an element covered by $1$ and $p < 1$ is prime if $xy\leq p$ implies $x\leq p$ or $y\leq p$.
The proof of the first part goes as such:
[...] Again, unless $x\leq m, x\vee m = 1$. Hence if $xy\leq m$ but $x\nleq m$, then $y = 1y = (x\vee m)y \leq_! xy \vee my = m \vee m1 = m$ so that $m$ is [a] prime.
I don't understand where the inequality marked with $_!$ comes from. My understanding is that the reverse inequality is true, but not this one.
Am I missing something obvious here?
I think the theorem is false.
For a counterexample, consider the $4$-element set $$G = \{0,a,b,1\}$$ with multiplication defined by
and partial order defined by
Then $a,b\;$are both maximal, but neither is prime.
For example, letting
$\qquad x = a,\;y = a,\;m = b$
we have
$\qquad xy \le m$, but $x \not\le m,\;y \not\le m$.