It's clear that every $X$ is a Banach space then the map $x \mapsto .5 x$ is an injection from $X$ to itself which is contractive. In general if $X$ is a metric space, does there necessarily exist an injective contractive map from $X$ to itself.
2026-04-09 04:25:33.1775708733
Metric Spaces Admitting Injective Contraction
63 Views Asked by user355356 https://math.techqa.club/user/user355356/detail AtRelated Questions in REAL-ANALYSIS
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