Let us consider the free non-relativistic Schrödinger equation $$i\partial_t \psi =-\frac{1}{2}\partial_x^2 \psi=:H\psi.$$ Adapting Fritz John's pathological solution to the heat equation, I find that the non-zero smooth function $$\varphi:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{C}:(x,t) \mapsto \sum_{n=0}^\infty f^{(n)}(t)\frac{x^{2n}(-2i)^n}{(2n)!}, \qquad f(t)\equiv e^{-1/t^2}$$ solves the free Schrödinger equation while reducing identically to zero as $t\to 0$. This establishes that the Schrödinger equation, regarded as a PDE at face value, never offers a unique solution to an initial value problem.
Traditionally, we add in the constraint that the solution of the Schrödinger equation ought to maneuver inside $L^2(\mathbb{R})$ in order to make the Born rule operable. However, usual treatments also add in strong-continuity-like ingredients so that we can finally handle the Schrödinger equation with a cosy and standard functional-analytic framework. However, the physical interpretation and requirement of these continuity ingredients is a bit obscure to me, certainly so since they are to a certain degree non-local (e.g. in the semigroup context, it is demanded that there is a dense core of "classical solutions" $t \mapsto \psi(t)$ characterized by $\forall t \in \mathbb{R}: H\psi(t) \in L^2(\mathbb{R})$, which indeed has the flavour of a non-local weight condition).
Q: Does Born's integrability condition $\psi(t)\in L^2(\mathbb{R})$ suffice to select unique solutions for the Schrödinger-equation-related IVP (or do we really need the additional $\partial_x^2\psi(t)\in L^2(\mathbb{R})$ or similar strong-continuity requirements)?
EDIT(18/02/19): One is of course tempted to use $\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R})$ to our advantage by allowing us to use the Fourier transform in the direction of $x$: the Schrödinger equation then reads $i\partial_t \hat{\psi} = p^2 \hat{\psi}$ from where uniqueness seems easy to obtain. I'm unsure though what to say about the necessary "differentiations under the integral sign" and partial differentiations that are required along this line of thinking.
Let us make the following three assumptions:
The Schrödinger equation is interpreted in the following weak sense: $\forall v \in C_0^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$ $$i\frac{d}{dt}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}v(x)\psi(x,t)dx = -\frac{1}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} v''(x)\psi(x,t)dx$$ $(\psi(.,t)$ Borel measurable for all $t \in \mathbb{R})$
$\forall t_1,t_2 \in \mathbb{R}:\,\psi(.,t_1)\in L^2(\mathbb{R})$ and
$$\int_{t_1}^{t_2}dt\,\|\psi(.,t)\|_2<+\infty.$$
(the motivation for the 3rd condition comes from the linearity of the problem at hand: If $\psi_1$ and $\psi_2$ both obey conditions 1 and 2 and agree $\psi(.,0)=\psi_2(.,0)$ a.e., then $\psi:=\psi_1-\psi_2$ obeys condition 1, 2 and 3.)
Then $\forall t \in \mathbb{R}:\,\psi(x,t) = 0$ for almost all $x\in \mathbb{R}$.
To show this, we consider the family $v_{R,p}(x):=\eta(x/R)e^{ipx}$ of compactly supported functions where $\eta$ is a standard bump function: $\eta \in C_0^\infty$ and $\eta(0)=1$. Inserting $v= v_{R,p}$ in the Schrödinger equation above and abbreviating $\hat{\psi}_R(p,t):=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}v_{R,p}(x)\psi(x,t)dx$, we get $$(i\partial_t-\frac{1}{2}p^2)\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)= -\frac{1}{2R}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\underbrace{\left(2ip\eta'(x/R) + \eta''(x/R)/R\right)e^{ipx}}_{=:f_R(x)}\psi(x,t)dx=:\Delta_R(p,t)$$ Now, $$\partial_t\left|\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)\right|^2=2\text{ Im}\left[-i\overline{\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)}\Delta_R(p,t)\right]\leq |\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)||\Delta_R(p,t)|\leq |\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)|\frac{\|f_R\|_2\|\psi(t)\|_2}{2R}.\qquad(*)$$ Dividing (*) by $(1+\left|\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)\right|^2)$ and using the identity $\{\forall \xi>0:\,\frac{\xi}{1+\xi^2}\leq 1\}$, we get $$\partial_t\log\left(1+\left|\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)\right|^2\right)\leq \frac{\|f_R\|_2\|\psi(t)\|_2}{2R}$$ Since $f_R$ has a support with diameter of order $R$ and amplitude of order 1, we can find $M>0$ s.t. $\forall R>0:\,\|f_R\|_2\leq MR^{1/2}$. By integrating the previous inequality, this yields $$\int_0^T dt \,\partial_t\log\left(1+\left|\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)\right|^2\right)\leq \frac{M}{2R^{1/2}}\int_0^Tdt\,\|\psi(t)\|_2.\qquad(**)$$ To deal with the left hand side of this inequality, we note that assumption 1 enables repeated differentiation of $\hat{\psi}_R(p,.)$ (differentiation under the integral) so that this function is $C^\infty$ so that the integrand of the LHS of (**) is $C^\infty$ and therefore subject to the simplest version of the fundamental theorem of calculus, which implies $$\log\left(1+\left|\hat{\psi}_R(p,T)\right|^2\right)\leq \frac{M}{2R^{1/2}}\int_0^Tdt\,\|\psi(t)\|_2.$$ Since $\psi(.,t)\in L^2(\mathbb{R})$ and $\eta(./R)\psi(.) \overset{R \to \infty}{\to} \psi$ in $L^2(\mathbb{R})$, Plancherel's theorem (unitarity of Fourier transform) asserts that $\hat{\psi}_R(.,t)\overset{R \to \infty}{\to}({\cal F}\psi)(.,t)\overset{\text{abbrev.}}{=}\hat{\psi}(.,t)$ in $L^2(\mathbb{R})$. So, for almost all $p \in \mathbb{R}$, $$\left|\hat{\psi}(p,t)\right|=\lim_{R\to \infty}\left|\hat{\psi}_R(p,t)\right|\leq \lim_{R\to \infty}\left(\exp\left(\frac{M}{2R^{1/2}}\int_0^T dt\,\|\psi(t)\|\right)-1\right)=0$$ by virtue of assumption 2. Again invoking Plancherel's theorem, this means that $\psi(.,t)=0$ in the sense of $L^2(\mathbb{R})$, i.e. $\psi(.,t)$ is zero a.e.