In Agrawal's conjecture:
If $r$ is a prime number that does not divide $n$ and if $(X-1)^n ≡ X^n-1 \pmod{X^r-1, n}$, then either $n$ is prime or $n^2 ≡ 1\pmod r$.
How to understand $\pmod{X^r-1, n}$?
I searched for "modular equivalence" but did not find an answer for this notation (with comma in parentheses).
I think it's simply remainder left after dividing $X^{r}-1$ by $n$.