I am learning semantics of language Haskell and there i come around this question.
For answering this, I am thinking in this way:
a) For a function to be monotonic, let's say I have 2 arguments: $f$ and $g$. If $f ≼ g$, I have to show that $ee(f) ≼ ee(g)$. Let's say I have $f = \bot$ and $g = 0$. Then on applying $f$, I get $\bot$, and on applying $0$, I get $True$. What is wrong here?
b) For function to be continuous, LUB of $f$ is equal as applying function on all inputs then take LUB. I am confused how to apply this here.
c) And I don't know what is least fixpoint. Is it the least possible input or the result?
Can anyone please help me solving this. Thank you.

About a): As you correctly state, $ee$ is said to be monotonic if, for all $f$ and $g$, whenever $f \preceq g$, then also $ee(f) \preceq ee(g)$.
The first thing you are missing is which values $f$ and $g$ can take: Note that $f$ and $g$ are functions from $\mathbb{Z}_\bot$ to $\mathbb{B}_\bot$, so you cannot take $g=0$ (as $0$ is not a function to the Booleans).
That being said, let's consider what we have to prove. First of all, when is $f \preceq g$? In this case, this means that for all $x \in \mathbb{Z}_\bot$, we have $f(x) \preceq g(x)$.
Let us now consider a special case of the proof. We know that $f \preceq g$, and we want to show that $ee(f)(x) \preceq ee(g)(x)$. Suppose that $f(x) = \bot$ for all $x$. Since $f(x) \preceq g(x)$, this means that $g(x)$ can be arbitrary (why?).
Now, we consider $ee(f)(x)$ and $ee(g)(x)$. We have to show that $ee(f)(x) \preceq ee(g)(x)$. Then there are four cases:
The general proof proceeds is similar to this.
Abouyt b): What you need to show is the following: Suppose $f_1, f_2, \ldots$ is a sequence of functions $\mathbb{Z}_\bot \to \mathbb{B}_\bot$, such that $f_1 \preceq f_2 \preceq \ldots$. The least upper bound $f^* := \bigvee_{i=1}^\infty f_i$ is a function such that on one hand, $f_i \preceq f^*$ for all $i$, and on the other hand, if $f_i \preceq f'$ for all $i$, then also $f^* \preceq f'$.
To show that $ee$ is continous, let $f_1, f_2, \ldots$ be a sequence of functions as above. You have to show that $\bigvee_i ee(f_i) = ee(\bigvee_i f_i)$. Approach:
About c): The least fixed point of $ee$ is defined to be the $f$ such that $ee(f) = f$ and that for all $g$ such that $ee(g) = g$, we have $f \preceq g$. To find the least fixed point, note that $ee(f)(0) = True$ for any function $f$, so any fixpoint of $f$ will have $f(0) = True$. This also implies that $f(1) = f(-1) = \neg f(0) = False$, $f(2) = f(-2) = True$, \dots The pattern should now be easy to recognize.
Edit: Fixed some typos pointed out in the comments.