I read somewhere (in texts of John Baldwin, e.g.), that every first-order theory $T$ has a "monster model," say M.
(1) Any small model $M$ of $T$ can be regarded as a submodel of M. (2) If $A$ and $B$ are small enough subsets of M, and there is a partial elementary map between $A$ and $B$, then this extends to an automorphism of M.
My questions: is (a) correct as I write it here ?; (b) how should I see $A$ and $B$ ? It is hard for me to believe that they could be just any subsets of M.
I would be very interested if someone explained it through, e.g., the theory $T$ of finite projective planes.
Yes, the monster model can be difficult to visualize at first, and indeed without certain set-theoretic assumptions it's not actually guaranteed to exist! This turns out not to be a problem in practice, and the role of the monster model is essentially linguistic (just like how set theorists talk about forcing extensions of the universe, even though that patently doesn't make sense), but is a detail which can often be missed at first. This note of Baldwin says a bit about this.
All a monster model really is is a saturated model of sufficiently large cardinality. Saturated models are homogeneous, which immediately implies the at-first-nonintuitive automorphism fact you mention; to come to grips with this, it might be a good idea to look first at other situations where homogeneity crops up, such as Fraisse limits. Note that the existence of a partial elementary map from $A$ to $B$ implies that $A$ and $B$, viewed as structures on their own (that is, forgetting the rest of $M$), are isomorphic; the point is that any two parts of $M$ which look like each other "locally" in fact look like each other "globally."
It's possible that the confusion here is stemming from the use of "partial elementary map" here. In this context, a partial elementary map from $A$ to $B$ is a partial function $f:M\rightarrow M$ such that:
$dom(f)\supseteq A$, $ran(f)\supseteq B$ (in particular, $f$ is total on $A$!), and
For each formula $\varphi$ and tuple $\overline{a}$ from $A$, we have $M\models\varphi(\overline{a})$ iff $M\models\varphi(f(\overline{a}))$.
This immediately implies (assuming the language is relational, so all subsets are substructures) that $f\upharpoonright A$ is an isomorphism from the substructure $A$ to the substructure $B$. (In the presence of function symbols, we have the slightly messier statement that $f\upharpoonright\hat{A}$ is an isomorphism from the substructure $\hat{A}$ to the substructure $\hat{B}$, where $\hat{C}$ is the smallest substructure of $M$ containing the subset $C$ - that is, the closure of $C$ under the functions of $M$.)