I'm having a little trouble formalizing the proof for this statement
Suppose B is the set of barbers in a town who shave ALL those and ONLY those who DO NOT shave themselves
I have to prove that the set B is either the empty set , or the barbers do not shave.
This result is intuitive given this particular formulation of the paradox, however I haven't been able to formally prove this result
I've tried to write down my process using latex but I end up with unformatted code \forall \exists \land
You might try the following formalization:
$\forall a\in M :[[\exists b\in B: bSa] \iff \neg aSa]$
where
$M$ is the set of men in town
$B$ is the set of barbers, $B\subset M$
$bSa$ mean b shaves a
In words: Together, the barbers shave those and only those men in the village who do not shave themselves.
It is not possible that there is only one barber.
It is possible that there are exactly two barbers x and y such that x shaves every man in town but himself, and y shaves x.
EDIT $1$
In addition, you can construct the shaves relation as a subset $S$ of $M\times M$ as follows:
$\forall a,b :[(a,b)\in S \iff (a,b)\in M\times M \land [[a=x \land b\ne x]\lor[a=y \land b=x]]]$
Then you can prove:
$\forall a\in M:[a\ne x \implies (x,a)\in S]$
$(x,x)\notin S$
$(y,x)\in S$
$\forall a\in M:[[ \exists b\in B:(b,a)\in S] \iff (a,a)\notin S]$
Other possibilities exist for $S$ including no barbers ($B=\emptyset$) and every man shaving himself (thanks WmE).
EDIT $2$
We make the following assumptions about the sets M, S and B:
1) All barbers are men who live in town
$B\subset M$
2) Shavers are unique.
$(a,b)\in S \land (c,b)\in S\implies a=c$
3) If a man doesn't shave himself, then a barber must shave him.
$(a,a)\notin S\implies \exists b\in B: (b,a)\in S$
Then it can be shown that
$\forall a\in M:[[ \exists b\in B:(b,a)\in S] \iff (a,a)\notin S]$
$\iff \forall a\in B: (a,a)\notin S$
i.e. the barbers cannot shave themselves.
See my formal proof (in DC Proof format) at Multiple Barber Paradox.