we are given the function $F: \mathbb R^3 \to \mathbb R^2$, $F(x,y,z)=\begin{pmatrix} x+yz-z^3-1 \\ x^3-xz+y^3\end{pmatrix}$
Show that around $(1,-1,0)$ we can represent $x$ and $y$ as functions of $z$, and find $\frac{dx}{dz}$ and $\frac{dy}{dz}$
What I did:
The differential of $F$ is:
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & z &y-3z^2\\3x^2-z & 3y^2 &-x\end{pmatrix}$, insert $x=1,y=-1,z=0$ to get:
$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 &-1 \\3&3&-1\end{pmatrix}$
The matrix of the partial derivatives with respect to x and y is the first 2 columns, and it is invertible, and so the requirements of the implicit function theorem are met.
How do i find the differential of $x$ and $y$ with respect to $z$ tho?
One would expect that $\frac{dx}{dz} = -\frac{dF}{dz}(\frac{dF}{dx})^{-1}$ but...those are vectors. what is the inverse of a vector? how do you multiply vectors? there's a size mismatch.
In this problem we can't apply the IFT as it is, because to use this version of the IFT one writes the last $m$ variables as functions of the first $n$ ones, but looking at the proof one notices that we can just consider permutations of this and this is what happens here.
In the notation above one has $n=1, m=2, \Omega =\mathbb R^{n+m}, F\colon \mathbb R^{n+m}\to \mathbb R^m$ given by $F(x,y,z)=(f_1(x,y,z), f_2(x,y,z))$, where $f_1(x,y,z)=x+yz-z^3$ and $f_2(x,y,z)=x^3-xz+y^3$.
For all $(x,y,z)\in \mathbb R^3$ it holds that:
Therefore $\begin{pmatrix} \dfrac {\partial f_1}{\partial x}(1,-1, 0) & \dfrac {\partial f_1}{\partial y}(1, -1, 0)\\ \dfrac {\partial f_2}{\partial x}(1, -1, 0) & \dfrac {\partial f_2}{\partial y}(1, -1, 0)\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 3 & 3\end{pmatrix}$ and the matrix $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 3 & 3\end{pmatrix}$ is invertible.
So, by the IFT, there exists an interval $V$ around $z=0$ and a neighborhood $W$ around $(x,y)=(1,-1)$ and a class $C^1(V)$ function $G\colon V\to W$ such that $G(0)=(1-1)$ and $\forall z\in V\left(F(g_1(z), g_2(z), z)=0\right)$, where $g_1(z), g_2(z)$ denote the first and second entries, respectively, of $G(z)$, for all $z\in V$. (In analyst terms, $g_1(z)=x(z)$ and $g_2(z)=y(z)$).
One also finds
$$ \begin{pmatrix} \dfrac {\partial g_1}{\partial z}(z)\\ \dfrac {\partial g_2}{\partial z}(z) \end{pmatrix}=\\ -\begin{pmatrix} \dfrac{\partial f_1}{\partial x}(g_1(z), g_2(z), z) & \dfrac{\partial f_1}{\partial y}(g_1(z), g_2(z), z)\\ \dfrac{\partial f_2}{\partial x}(g_1(z), g_2(z), z) & \dfrac{\partial f_2}{\partial y}(g_1(z), g_2(z), z) \end{pmatrix}^{-1} \begin{pmatrix} \dfrac{\partial f_1}{\partial z}(g_1(z), g_2(z), z)\\ \dfrac{\partial f_2}{\partial z}(g_1(z), g_2(z), z) \end{pmatrix}_. $$
Now you can happily evaluate the RHS at $z=0$.