The following statement is a simple consequence of the multivariable chain rule:
Assume the subsets $X \subset \mathbb{R}^m$ and $Y \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ are open. Consider the maps $$g:X \to \mathbb{R}^n,\phantom{aaa} f:Y \to \mathbb{R}$$ where $g(X) \subset Y$. Let $g_1,...,g_n$ be the component maps of $g$, i.e., all the $g_i$'s map from $X$ to $\mathbb{R}$ and $$g(x)=(g_1(x),...,g_n(x))$$ for all $x \in X$. Assume that all the partial derivatives of the $g_i$'s exist at some point $\alpha \in X$. Assume further that $f$ is (Frechet-)differentiable at point $g(\alpha)$. Then, all the partial derivatives of $f \circ g$ at point $\alpha$ exist.
Short: The composition of a differentiable map with a partially differentiable map is partially differentiable.
My question: In the above setting, if $f$ is only partially differentiable at point $g(\alpha)$ (and not Frechet-differentiable), is the map $f\circ g$ still partially differentiable? If not, what is a counterexample? If yes, how to prove it?

Consider the function $f:\mathbb R^2\to\mathbb R$ defined by $$ f(x,y) = \begin{cases} 0, & (x,y) = (0,0) \\ \frac{xy}{x^2+y^2}, & (x,y)\ne (0,0). \end{cases}$$ It is partial differentiable at $(x,y) = (0,0)$, as $f$ is constant $0$ on the axes. But, $f$ is not even continuous at $(x,y)=(0,0)$.
In fact, the chain rule fails, as for $t\ne 0$ we have $$ f(t, t^2) = \frac{t^3}{t^2 + t^4}, $$ which derivative is $1$ and not $0$, as implied by the chain rule.