Here, it is written that if a topological abelian group $M$ has a fundamental system of neighborhoods of 0 consisting of subgroups, then the subgroups must be open.
Why is this true?
Here, it is written that if a topological abelian group $M$ has a fundamental system of neighborhoods of 0 consisting of subgroups, then the subgroups must be open.
Why is this true?
Alright, so the answer is yes:
Let $N\subset M$ be a subgroup which is a neighborhood of $0$. Then, there is an open $U\subset N$ containing $0$. Then, we have trivially $$N = \bigcup_{n\in N}(n+U)$$ where $n+U$ is the set $\{n+u : u\in U\}$, which is open due to continuity of the group operation. Thus, $N$ is a union of opens, and hence open.