Given a group $G$ and a Sylow-p subgroup $P$ of $G$. If necessary -I am not sure whether it is or not- assume that $G$ has more than one Sylow p-subgroups. I am claiming that normalizer $N(P)$ of $P$ is itself. My arguement is the following:
If $P \subset N(P)$, then there is an element $g$ in $N(P)$ that is not in $P$. Since $g$ is an element of $N(P)$, we have $gPg^{-1}=P$. However, we know that $gPg^{-1} = Q$ is another Sylow-p subgroup of $G$. Then we get $P=Q$ which makes no sense so $N(P)=P$.
Is my argument correct?
Your argument is incorrect. It can happen that a Sylow p-subgroup $P$ of $G$ is also a normal subgroup of $G$. The Sylow 3-subgroup of the nonabelian group of order 6 is normal, for example. If $P$ is a normal subgroup of $G$ then $N(P)=G$.
You are right to say that $gPg^{-1}$ is a Sylow p-subgroup of $G$ whenever $P$ is such, but it's possible that $P = gPg^{-1}$ even when $g$ is not in $P$.
I see that I need to add an example in which the Sylow p-subgroup is not unique. The nonabelian group $S_3$ of order 6 has exactly 3 Sylow 2-subgroups. Suppose $G$ is the direct product of $S_3$ and a cyclic group of order 5. Then $G$ still has three Sylow 2-subgroups. But the normalizer of each of these has order 10 -- all the elements of order 5 in G are in the normalizer of each Sylow 2-subgroup.