I'm looking for a solution to this problem:
$$\left\{\forall x (Qx \leftrightarrow (\exists y (Rxy \wedge \neg x = y))),\quad \forall x Qx,\quad \exists x \exists y \forall z (z = x \vee z = y)\right\} \models \forall x \forall y (Rxy \leftrightarrow Ryx)$$
I can see that the brunt of the proof will come from making a contradiction between the identities in the conjunction and those in the first premise, but I'm not sure. Some help would be much appreciated!
Synopsis of proof:
We let $Rcd$. Then, using the premise $\forall x \exists y [Rxy \land \neg x = y]$, we conclude $Rde$. Then, we argue that $e$ must be equal to $c$, using $\forall z[z = a \lor z = b]$. Then, we conclude that $Rcd \implies Rdc$. Using symmetry, we conclude that $Rdc \implies Rcd$, hence $Rcd \iff Rdc$. Then, we generalize to $\forall x \forall y[Rxy \iff Ryx]$.