Natural deduction proof of ¬p ∨ q ⊢ ¬(¬p → q)

Question

I am working through some natural deduction proofs and found this question:

¬p ∨ q ⊢ ¬(¬p → q)

I can quite easily get to ¬¬(p → q) using the ¬¬i rule, so I'm not sure if I'm missing something or if the question perhaps contains a typo.

Any ideas?

Answer 1

Thanks @MauroALLEGRANZA for assisting - we have agreed that the question contains a typo. My assumption is that the question was meant to be as follows:

¬p ∨ q ⊢ ¬¬(p → q)