I had a hard time proving the statement: "a transformation between two bifunctors is natural if and only if it is a natural transformation in each of it's arguments". This is Proposition no. 2, p. 38 of Saunders Mac Lane's textbook "Categories for the Working Mathematician".
Any hints?
Thank you very much.
I assume by bifunctor you mean a functor $\mathcal A\times\mathcal B\to\mathcal C$.
Hint: If $f:A\to A'$ in $\mathcal A$ and $g:B\to B'$ in $\mathcal B$, then $$(f,1_{B'})\circ(1_A,g)\ =\ (f,g)\ =\ (1_{A'},g)\circ(f,1_B)\,.$$