I'm reading the book "Differential Geometry of Curves and Surfaces" of Manfredo Carmo, and this part confuses me:
We have the differential equation of the lines of the curvature: $$(fE-eF)(u')^2 +(gE-eG)u'v' + (gF - fG)(v')^2 = 0$$ Using the fact that the principal directions are orthogonal to each other, we conclude that a necessary and sufficient condition for the coordinate curves of a parametrization to be lines of curvature in a neighborhood of a nonumbilical point is that $F = f = 0$
I know that if the local parametrization of the surface is $x(u,v)$, then $F = <x_u, x_v>$, so to say that $F = 0$ meaning saying that $x_u$ is orthogonal to $x_v$, which I don't understand why we can state that. Can anyone help me clarify this? Thanks a lot for your time
Let $X\colon U\subset \mathbb{R}^2\longrightarrow S\subset \mathbb{R}^3$ be a parametrization of a regular surface $S$ that contains no umbilical points of $S$. Then we will show that:
the parametrized curves of $X$ are lines of curvature $\Longleftrightarrow$ $F=f=0$.
Proof: