To fix the terminology, a valuation of a field F will be a map from F to the real numbers such that, on writing $|x|$ for the image of $x$, $|x|\geq 0$ for all $x$, $|x|=0$ iff $x=0$, $|xy|=|x||y|$ for all $x$,$y$ and $|x+y|\leq|x|+|y|$ for all $x,y$. This last inequality is called the triangle inequality. If it is replaced by the stronger inequality $|x+y|\leq max(|x|,|y|)$ for all $x,y$, which is called the ultrametric inequality, the valuation is called non-Archimedean. An Archimedean valuation is a valuation which is not non-Archimedean.
In Ribenboim’s book The Theory of Classical Valuations, he gives an easy proof on page 11 that a valuation is non-Archimedean iff $|n.1|\leq 1$ for all natural numbers $n$ where $n.1$ is the sum of $n$ copies of the identity element $1$ of F. On page 473 of Artin and Whaples’ paper “Axiomatic Characterization of Fields By the Product Formula for Valuations” Bull AMS 51 (1945) pp. 469-492 , they say that $|1+1|>1$ for every Archimedean valuation of F.
It follows from Ribenboim’s theorem that $|1+1|>1$ is sufficient for a valuation to be Archimedean, but why is it necessary?
I tried showing the contrapositive, that a valuation such that $|1+1|≤1$ must be non-Archimedean, and using the fact that a valuation is non-Archimedean iff the set $$S=\{|n.1| : n \text{ is a natural number}\}$$ is bounded (p. 118 of Algebraic Number Theory by Jurgen Neukirch) but could only obtain bounds on particular $|n.1|$, not on the whole set $S$.
Proof: See Lemma 8.2 (p. 18) of "Ultrametric Calculus: An Introduction to p-adic Analysis" - [W.H. Schikhof] - 2006