So in order to show that $$\bigcap_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\left(0,1/n\right]=Ø$$
Then we must show that $$\bigcap_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\left(0,1/n\right]\subseteq Ø$$ and the opposite
So what I was thinking. Letting $x\inØ$ then $x=Ø$ s.t for some $n\in\mathbb{N}$ so $Ø\in\bigcap_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\left(0,1/n\right]$. Since $x\inØ$ then $x\in\left(0,1/n\right]$. It follows that $Ø\subseteq\bigcap_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\left(0,1/n\right]$. Now for the opposite I don't quite know how to start. I was thinking of going for a contrapositive approach, but I don't know how to execute it after saying that $x\notin Ø$. I have a hard time proving theorems and any proof related problem. Im not asking for "solve this for me" I want to learn so any hints would be greatly appreciated
Asserting that $\bigcap_{n\in\mathbb N}\left(0,\frac1n\right]=\emptyset$ simply means that no number belongs to every interval $\left(0,\frac1n\right]$. To see why, let $x\in\mathbb R$. Then:
By the way, it is false that $\emptyset\in\bigcap_{n\in\mathbb N}\left(0,\frac1n\right]$, since each set $\left(0,\frac1n\right]$ is a set of real numbers, and $\emptyset$ is not a real number.